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Thank you very much for this great overview and analysis.

the "inversion des norms," a key part of the French labor code which requires that all worker contracts within a given sector obey a certain set of minima

How is a company formally determined to belong to which sector?  Does a company that otherwise meets all criteria (e.g. number of employees, capitalization, etc.) have to belong to one sector or another?  Are there criteria that may exempt a company from belonging to any sector?

One misunderstood aspect in the anglo-saxon press of France's workforce is just how low France's level of unionisation is.

Yes, this was news to me.  Thanks for explaining how the hierarchy of norms accounts for the power of labor unions in France, despite the low unionization level.

... the article has been in place, and often used, since the institution by General de Gaulle (and voted by referendum) of the 5th Republic itself.

Are there other Western European countries that have a similar article to 49-3?

consumer demand cannot help but be undermined in the short term

Can you explain this point further?

Point n'est besoin d'espérer pour entreprendre, ni de réussir pour persévérer. - Charles le Téméraire

by marco on Wed Jun 1st, 2016 at 02:02:44 AM EST

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